« What does safety means at workplace and why it is important?
Local Area Connection doesn’t have a valid IP configuration ,please help! »
Or is having one language sufficient?
This post has no tag
08/01/2017 at (UTC -6)
Link to this comment
Is one language enough? No. Illiterate is a person who cannot read or write. So that too would be a no. The definition does not say that the person can not read or write the language of the country they are in.
You could say they are illiterate in English, but it doesn’t apply to the broad base definition of the word. To not be able to read or write in any language would then apply.
You must be logged in to post a comment.
© 2017 Frequently Questions and Answer.
Powered by WordPress and the Graphene Theme.